Luk 23:22 What is "Why"? #1220

New Issue

Open

opened 2024-01-30 18:35:42 +00:00 by SusanQuigley · 1 comment

SusanQuigley commented

2024-01-30 18:35:42 +00:00

Owner

My email to Drew. 1/29/2024

Hi Drew,

Mel is copyediting the ULB.

Luke 23:22 has this.
He said to them a third time, "Why, what evil has this man done? I have found no guilt deserving death in him. Therefore after punishing him, I will release him."

Mel's Note:
23:22 Many versions have “Why” as a single-word sentence – “Why? What evil has this man done?” It seems like this makes it clearer that “Why” is not an expression of surprise but a true inquiry about the crowd’s reason for demanding that Jesus be crucified.

Greek: Τί (what) γὰρ (for) κακὸν (evil) ἐποίησεν (did) οὗτος (this)?

My thoughts from looking at BibleHub
Τί can follow a preposition to mean "why."
• Matt 14:31 εἰς τί 'of what'
• Luke 19:23 διὰ τί 'through what'
But γὰρ is tagged as a conjunction and follows Τί.
This leads me to think that Pilate asked one question ("What evil has this one done?"), and perhaps γὰρ shows that his question is the reason for his (as yet) unstated objection.
Some Spanish translations have ¿Por qué? ‘Why?’ and some have Pues ‘so/well.’
The two Portuguese translations have either nothing or Pois ‘well.’
German has denn ‘because.’
French has Mais ‘But.’

Would it be good to change the ULB to one of these to make it clear?
• Well, what evil has this man done?
• Then, what evil has this man done?
• So, what evil has this man done?
• But what evil has this man done?
• What evil has this man done?

What do you think?

Blessings,
Susan

My email to Drew. 1/29/2024 Hi Drew, Mel is copyediting the ULB. Luke 23:22 has this. He said to them a third time, "Why, what evil has this man done? I have found no guilt deserving death in him. Therefore after punishing him, I will release him." Mel's Note: 23:22 Many versions have “Why” as a single-word sentence – “Why? What evil has this man done?” It seems like this makes it clearer that “Why” is not an expression of surprise but a true inquiry about the crowd’s reason for demanding that Jesus be crucified. Greek: Τί (what) γὰρ (for) κακὸν (evil) ἐποίησεν (did) οὗτος (this)? **My thoughts from looking at BibleHub** Τί can follow a preposition to mean "why." • Matt 14:31 εἰς τί 'of what' • Luke 19:23 διὰ τί 'through what' But γὰρ is tagged as a conjunction and follows Τί. This leads me to think that Pilate asked one question ("What evil has this one done?"), and perhaps γὰρ shows that his question is the reason for his (as yet) unstated objection. Some Spanish translations have ¿Por qué? ‘Why?’ and some have Pues ‘so/well.’ The two Portuguese translations have either nothing or Pois ‘well.’ German has denn ‘because.’ French has Mais ‘But.’ Would it be good to change the ULB to one of these to make it clear? • Well, what evil has this man done? • Then, what evil has this man done? • So, what evil has this man done? • But what evil has this man done? • What evil has this man done? What do you think? Blessings, Susan

SusanQuigley commented

2024-01-30 18:36:06 +00:00

Author

Owner

Drew’s reply. 1/29/2024

I would be okay with eliminating the initial why. Why is not really a translation…BDAG:

often in questions, where the English idiom leaves the word untranslated (so the translators), adds then, pray, or prefixes what! or why! to the question

Lenski: “In questions γάρ is little more than an intensive particle”

Drew

Drew’s reply. 1/29/2024 I would be okay with eliminating the initial why. Why is not really a translation…BDAG: often in questions, where the English idiom leaves the word untranslated (so the translators), adds then, pray, or prefixes what! or why! to the question Lenski: “In questions γάρ is little more than an intensive particle” Drew